In a previous blog, I told the story about my Beginning Hebrew teacher deriving great joy from teaching his lesson on the Hebrew pronouns. I remember the smirkish grin on his face and the delight he seemed to get from asking the question “Who is he?” which was always accompanied by his own surprisingly unorthodox answer “He is she.”
This self-bantering question-and-answer sequence was his teaching method for teaching the 3rd person singular masculine and feminine form of the Hebrew pronouns; “he” and “she” in English.
In Biblical Hebrew, “hu,” pronounced "hoo", as in 'new", is the 3rd person singular masculine pronoun form of the English pronoun “he”. And “hi,” pronounced “hee,” is the 3rd person singular feminine pronoun Hebrew form for the English pronoun “she”. So, in reality “Who is he” is not a question at all; it is an elusive grammatical statement. What originally was thought to be a question from my Beginning Hebrew teacher followed by a statement, elusively turns out to be two statements. Hebrew “hu” is English “he”; and Hebrew “hi” is English “she.” “hu” is “he and "hi" is "she".
As we continue to discuss clusivity in the book of Ephesians, we notice that in the first chapter, Paul’s usage of the 1st person plural pronouns (“we,” “us,” “our”) seems to indicate that he may be excluding his readers in his use of those 1st person plural pronouns in the early verses of chapter 1.
Later in the letter, in 6:21, we know that Paul tells his readers that he has sent "Tychicus, the beloved brother" to Ephesus "so that “you may know how we are, and that he may encourage your hearts." Here, it is clear that Paul is NOT including his Ephesian readers in his use of 1st person plural pronoun (“we”). Tychicus may be part of Paul's traveling-writing entourage, and he Paul might be including Tychicus here in his use of 1st person plural pronoun, but he is NOT including either group of the socio-religious group in Ephesus reading his letter.
Notice Paul's use of the 1st person plural, “we” and how he contrasts the 1st person pronoun with the 2nd person plural “you,” "your” in that verse. An obvious clue that Paul is NOT including the Ephesians is his reference switch form “we” to "you."
Since Pauls. switch-reference from 1st person to 2nd person pronouns here, the question to be asked then is "to whom is Paul referring when he says “we” in 6:21?"
At the least, he may be referring to himself and Tychicus. There may be others such as his companion Timothy or other disciples. In any case, it is clear that the Ephesians are NOT included in that use.
If Paul is using the 1st person plural pronoun (“we”) in 6:21 exclusively, then, to whom is Paul referring when he uses the 1st person plural pronoun (“we”) in the early parts of chapter 1? Does Paul begin his letter using 1st person plural exclusive pronouns as he does in 6:21, or does he include the Ephesians in that early section o the letter? Or perhaps is there yet another possibility?
If we assume that in Ephesians 1:1-12, Paul includes the Ephesians in his use of the 1st person pronouns, then that means he is including the Ephesians with himself when he makes the following references…
our Lord Jesus Christ
(Christ) has blessed us
(Christ) chose us
we should be holy and blameless before him.
(Christ) predestined us
(Christ) has blessed us
we have redemption
the forgiveness of our trespasses
(Christ) lavished (grace) upon us,
(Christ) made known[c] to us the mystery of his will
we have obtained an inheritance
(we) have(ing) been predestined
we who were the first to hope in Christ
If our assumption is true that Paul includes the Ephesians in his use of the 1st person pronouns in 1:1-12, then we need to pause and re-evaluate when we read verse 12. If assumption is true that the Ephesians are included in the "we's" of 1:11-12, then Who is “You?” in the next verse, verse 13?
In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit,
The transition from the 1st person plural pronouns (“we,” “us,” “our”) to the 2nd person pronouns (”you,” “your”) indicates that the Ephesian Christians, or at least part of the Ephesian Christians are NOT included in the use of the 1st person plural pronouns in 1:1-12.
If the Ephesians are excluded, then to whom is Paul referring? Who are they who have been blessed, who are they who have been chosen, who are they who are holy and blameless, who are they who have been redeemed, who are they who have been forgiven, upon whom has Christ’s grace been lavished, to whom has the mystery of God’s will been revealed, who are they who have obtained an inheritance, who are they who have been predestined, and who are they who were the first to hope in Christ?
There are very significant theological implications to identifying those people whom Paul is referencing in verses 1:1-12. Knowing who Paul is referencing makes all the difference in the world to how I understand this passage and how I theologically apply it to my life.
We have seen in a previous blog that Paul seems to be addressing two separate socio-religious groups in his letter. At times he makes specific mention to both groups at the same time (2:11-11), and at other times he addresses only one of the groups (1:12, 2:11b) and at other times, the other group (2:11a, 3:1).
We noticed that Paul’s reference to “we who were the first to hope in Christ” is a clear reference to Jewish Christians, as it was the Jewish disciples to whom Jesus first revealed himself after his resurrection.
We have also seen that Paul address the Gentile Christians directly, as in 2:11, “remember that at one time you Gentiles… and 3:1, “I, Paul, a prisoner of Christ Jesus on behalf of you Gentiles”, and continuing that reference in 4:1, “I therefore, a prisoner for the Lord, urge you”…
If Paul is using the 1st person plural pronouns (“we,” “us,” “our”) inclusively in 1:1-12 ), then we may conclude that both Gentile Christians and Jewish Christians are included in all of the above blessings that God has graciously lavished on them. It also follows then by application, all of these blessings would then apply to all Christians from all generations and to all generations and include me as a present day Christian reader of Ephesians.
On the other hand, what if Paul is using the 1st person plural pronouns (“we,” “us,” “our”) exclusively in this section and is referring to only his entourage, but NOT either one of the two socio-religious groups; neither the Gentile or Jewish Christians. It may be possible, but the larger context of Christian scriptures indicates that this most likely is not the case.
However, there may be a case made for the possibility that Paul is referring to only the Jewish Christians in Ephesus in 1:1-12 as the “we who were the first to hope in Christ” statement may indicate, and as indicated by the reference switch of the 1st person plural pronoun "we" to the 2nd person pronoun "you" references in 1:13, referring subsequently then to the Gentile Christians in Ephesus. If the reference is now the Gentile Christians in 1:13, then that would answer our question Who is “You?” in verse 13 and following? The word “also” (or “in addition to”) is also an indicator that Paul now wants to include his readers, or at least a part of them at this point in his letter which he previously had not included.
In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit,
The transition from the 1st person plural pronouns (“we,” “us,” “our”) to the 2nd person pronouns (”you,” “your”) indicates that the Ephesian Christians, or at least part of the Ephesian Christians are NOT included in the previous uses of the 1st person plural pronouns in 1:1-12.
Since we have demonstrated that the “we” of “we were the first to hope in Christ” most likely refers to the Jewish Christians, we seem to have identified who it is that Paul includes in his 1st person plural pronoun; it is Jewish Christians, those to whom Jesus physically revealed himself, of which Paul is one, as he makes reference in the first line of his letter. Yes, it is those people who have been blessed, those who have been chosen, those who are holy and blameless, who have been redeemed, who have been forgiven, upon whom Christ has lavished his grace, to whom God has revealed the mystery of his will, those who have obtained an inheritance, who have been predestined; indeed it is those who in the fullness of time were the first to hope in Christ?
If it is true that Paul is referring to Jewish Christians here, as also the switch in references in the next verse, “you (Gentiles) also” also seems to indicate, then does this alter the general predestination debate?
If Paul is referring to the historical Jewish nation as those who were “the first to hope in Christ,” as those who were also the predestined ones of verse 11, where do the Gentiles fit in the predestination theological construct? If Paul is referring to the historical Jewish nation in 1:12 Ephesians as being predestined, then where does that leave the rest of the nations?
Is it possible that Paul is referring to the Jewish nation as being predestined by God, not to be saved (which the text does not say), but rather to be adopted as sons (which the text does say) for the end goal of God’s glory by using the Jewish nation as being a light to the nations, becoming the foci of God’s salvation plan via the gospel message.
And in addition, the the Jewish Christians, now indeed the Gentile Christians “also” are now included as participants in that salvation plan when they heard and believed just as those who initially predestined to be adopted were the first nation to hope in Christ.
So, it seems that Paul is indeed referring to the Jewish Christians in Ephesians 1:1-12 and then switches references to speak to the Gentile Christians in 1:13 and following. In doing so, he possibly alters the predestination construct by excluding the Gentiles from those who initially "were the first to hope in Christ."
It also seems that Paul continues to address the Gentile Christians in his letter from 1:13-4:7 until we are faced with yet another references switch in 4:7. Paul. By the use of another reference switch from the 2nd person plural pronoun ("you," "your") back to the 1st person plural pronouns (“we,” “us,” “our,”) and his use of an Old Testament quote in 4:7, Paul appears to switch back to speaking to the Jewish Christians in Ephesus.
This referential switch once more in 4:7 is mentioned only as subsequential textual evidence that the first referential switch is probable, and as such, bolsters my point that Paul is indeed speaking to Jewish Christians in 1:1-12, which has magnanimous theological implications.
Therefore, any interpretation and application of Ephesians 1:1-12 must take into account that Paul is NOT talking to Gentile Christians in Ephesus or those from and to all generations, he is referring only to the Jewish Christians in Ephesus.
And as such, again, it appears that only the Jewish nation has been predestined to be adopted as sons for God’s glory in the fullness of time; NOT everyone who believes is predestined, Not the Gentiles as those who are originally excluded from this predestination demonstrate.
So, by answering the question "Who is you?" in Ephesians 1:13, we are able to see a clear distinction between the Jewish Christians to whom Paul speaks in 1:1-12 and the Gentile Christians to whom he speaks in 1:13 and following.